WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRE | Exams Nursing | Docsity (2024)

Download WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Which of the following is an example of care that is provided using standing orders? Medical control is contacted by the EMT after a patient with chest pain refuses EMS care. The EMT defibrillates a cardiac arrest patient, begins CPR, and then contacts medical control. A physician gives the EMT an order via radio to administer oral glucose to a diabetic patient. Following an overdose, the EMT contacts the medical director for permission to give activated charcoal. - Answer The EMT defibrillates a cardiac arrest patient, begins CPR, and then contacts medical control. Quality control in an EMS system is the ultimate responsibility of the: paramedic. lead EMT. medical director. EMS administrator. - Answer medical director. Upon arriving at the scene of a domestic dispute, you hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: immediately gain access to the patient. carefully enter the house and then call the police. retreat to a safe place until the police arrive. tell the patient to exit the residence so you can provide care. - Answer retreat to a safe place until the police arrive. Which of the following is NOT a component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? Periodic review of run reports Discussion of needs for improvement Negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call Remedial training as deemed necessary by the medical director - Answer Negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call All of the following are responsibilities of the EMS medical director, EXCEPT: evaluating patient insurance information. serving as liaison with the medical community. ensuring that the appropriate standards are met by EMTs. ensuring WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE appropriate EMT education and continuing training. - Answer evaluating patient insurance information. Which of the following situations would MOST likely disqualify a person for EMS certification? A misdemeanor at the age of 17 Driving under the influence of alcohol Possessing a valid driver's license from another state A mild hearing impairment that is corrected with hearing aids - Answer Driving under the influence of alcohol Which of the following should be the EMT's highest priority? Controlling severe bleeding Maintaining a patient's airway Ensuring patient safety Ensuring personal safety - Answer Ensuring personal safety A patient who requires cardiac monitoring in the field would require, at a minimum, which level of EMS provider?. EMR EMT Paramedic AEMT - Answer Paramedic Which of the following is a professional responsibility of the EMT? Telling the family of a dying patient that everything will be OK Maintaining only the skills that the EMT feels uncomfortable with Maintaining a professional demeanor even under the most stressful situations Advising an emergency department nurse that patient reports are given only to a physician - Answer Maintaining a professional demeanor even under the most stressful situations Emergency patient care occurs in progressive phases. What occurs first? Activation of EMS Initial prehospital care The patient receives definitive care WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. DCAP B. HIPAA C. CQI D. APGAR - Answer B. HIPAA What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates B. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call - Answer A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. B. Follow the agency's written protocols. C. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. D. Deviate from established standards when necessary. - Answer B. Follow the agency's written protocols Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. EMR C. AEMT D. Paramedic - Answer A. EMT Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE C. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting - Answer B. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Multilumen airways B. Automatic transport ventilators C. Needle decompression D. Automated external defibrillator - Answer D. automates external defibrillator Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever B. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination - Answer D. The paramedic administers a patient;s lu vaccination Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. C. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. - Answer A. the ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. C. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. D. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. - Answer B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the state motor vehicle department b. law enforcement personnel c. the receiving nurse or doctor d. your medical director - Answer C. the receiving nurse or doctor You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. abuse of authority B. undue hardship C. patient advocacy D. scope of practice - Answer C. patient advocacy After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. - Answer B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. B. proceed with normal extrication procedures. C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. D. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. - Answer A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. smoke or dust. B. inanimate objects. C. animals or insects. D. direct contact. - Answer C. animals or insects. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. C. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. - Answer D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Developing a social network outside of EMS B. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption Feedback - Answer A. Developing a social network outside of EMS Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. - Answer C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. B. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. - Answer C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. - Answer A. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. Stacked empty barrels B. Behind a car door C. A large cluster of shrubs D. A concrete barricade - Answer D. A concrete barricade While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Airborne transmission B. Direct contact C. Vector-borne transmission D. Indirect contact - Answer D. Indirect contact You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE B. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. - Answer C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. A disease that can be spread from person-to-person is known as: an infectious disease. a communicable disease. a transmittable disease. a spreadable disease. - Answer a communicable disease. The MOST effective way of preventing the spread of disease is: handwashing. keeping your immunizations up-to-date. placing a HEPA respirator on the patient. wearing goggles, gloves, a gown, and a mask. - Answer handwashing. While caring for a trauma patient, the EMT has blood splashed into her eyes. This is an example of: infection. exposure. indirect contact. transmission. - Answer exposure. Protective measures that prevent health care workers from coming into contact with germs are referred to as: exposure. standard precautions. transmission. PPE. - Answer standard precautions. What is the second stage of response in the stress response known as general adaptation syndrome? Recovery Exhaustion Alarm WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. Feedback - Answer C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. - Answer B. decomposition of the body's tissues. The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. medical director. B. EMS supervisor. C. local health district. D. state EMS office. - Answer A. medical director. To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one: A. public forums with their medical director B. online access to patient records C. an anonymous reporting system D. a privacy officer to answer questions - Answer D. a privacy officer to answer questions When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened - Answer B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Select one: A. contact medical control on every EMS call. B. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. C. function above his or her scope of practice. D. consistently exceed the standard of care. - Answer B. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Voter registration card B. Driver's license C. Insurance card D. Social Security card - Answer B. Driver's license Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Protecting patient privacy B. Ensuring access to insurance C. Controlling insurance costs D. Preventing insurance fraud - Answer A. Protecting patient privacy Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation B. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation - Answer D. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. B. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. C. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. - Answer D. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. b. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. - Answer d. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Formal C. Implied D. Expressed - Answer D. Expressed You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. B. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. - Answer A. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: Select one: A. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. B. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. C. transport with minimal care. D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. - Answer D. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE You are treating a patient with an apparent emotional crisis. After the patient refuses treatment, you tell him that you will call the police and have him restrained if he does not give you consent. Your actions in this case are an example of: assault. battery. negligence. abandonment. - Answer assault. The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or she is: off duty and witnesses a major car accident. a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call. paid for his or her services, but is not on duty. out of his or her jurisdiction and sees a man choking. - Answer a volunteer, is on duty, and is dispatched on a call. Which of the following statements about records and reports is FALSE? Legally, if it was not documented, it was not performed. A complete, accurate report is an important safeguard against legal problems. An incomplete or untidy patient care report is evidence of incomplete or inexpert emergency medical care. Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient's hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital. - Answer Your patient care report does not become a part of the patient's hospital record because your treatment was provided outside the hospital. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE D. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. - Answer A. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. - Answer B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. B. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response. C. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment. D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips. - Answer A. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. D. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. - Answer B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. Effective therapeutic communication skills require _________. Select one: A. correct use of complex medical terminology B. English-speaking patients or family members C. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques D. supervision by advanced life support personnel - Answer C. verbal and nonverbal communication techniques WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. - Answer A. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: Select one: A. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. B. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. C. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual. D. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. - Answer A. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. not disclosing his or her name. B. withholding medical history data. C. using coded medical language. D. refraining from objective statements. - Answer A. not disclosing his or her name. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: Select one: A. coded and scripted. B. brief and easily understood. C. lengthy and complete. D. spoken in a loud voice. - Answer B. brief and easily understood. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. wait until you reach the hospital to transmit the information. B. send the electrocardiogram from the back of the ambulance. C. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . D. be aware that only audio or data transmissions can be sent at any one time. - Answer C. use the multiplex system to transmit the information . You are transporting a 54-year-old male in respiratory arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner are caring for the patient. Which of the following is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? Select one: A. Call the receiving hospital with your cell phone while providing patient care. B. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise the staff of your arrival. C. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. D. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise the staff of the situation. - Answer C. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. assault B. slander C. libel D. negligence - Answer B. slander When health care providers force their cultural values onto their patients because they believe their values are better, they are displaying: ethnocentrism. proxemics. nonverbal communication. cultural imposition. - Answer cultural imposition. When communicating with an older patient, you should: approach the patient slowly and calmly. step back to avoid making the patient uncomfortable. raise your voice to ensure that the patient can hear you. obtain the majority of your information from family members. - Answer approach the patient slowly and calmly. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE While caring for a 5-year-old boy with respiratory distress, you should: avoid direct eye contact with the child, as this may frighten him. avoid letting the child hold any toys, as this may hinder your care. avoid alerting the child prior to a painful procedure. allow a parent or caregiver to hold the child if the situation allows. - Answer allow a parent or caregiver to hold the child if the situation allows. Which of the following pieces of patient information is of LEAST pertinence when giving a verbal report to a nurse or physician at the hospital? The patient's name and age The patient's family medical history Vital signs that may have changed Medications that the patient is taking - Answer The patient's family medical history Which of the following statements about the patient care report (PCR) is true? It is not a legal document in the eyes of the law. It cannot be used for patient billing information. It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care. It is for use only by the prehospital care provider. - Answer It helps ensure efficient continuity of patient care. A device that receives a low-frequency signal and then transmits it at a relatively higher frequency is called a: duplex. scanner. repeater. receiver. - Answer repeater. When treating a potentially hostile patient, you should try to diffuse the situation by: assuming an aggressive posture. staring at the patient. speaking calmly, confidently, and slowly. verbally threatening the patient. - Answer speaking calmly, confidently, and slowly. All of the following are functions of the emergency medical dispatcher, EXCEPT: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE alerting the appropriate EMS response unit. screening a call and assigning it a priority. providing emergency medical instructions to the caller. providing medical direction to the EMT in the field. - Answer providing medical direction to the EMT in the field. After receiving an order from medical control over the radio, the EMT should: carry out the order immediately. disregard the order if it is not understood. obtain the necessary consent from the patient. repeat the order to the physician word for word. - Answer repeat the order to the physician word for word. When requesting medical direction for a patient who was involved in a major car accident, the EMT should avoid: using radio codes to describe the situation. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE D. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. - Answer C. the removal of fluid from around the heart. B. anterior. C. posterior. D. inferior. - An swer C. posterior. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. Select one: A. dorsum B. base C. septum D. apex - Answer D. apex The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? Select one: A. "sub - " and "infra - " B. "peri - " and "circum - " C. "infra - " and "peri - " D. "epi - " and "sub - " - Answer B. "peri - " and "circum - " The root "melan/o" means: Select one: A. red. B. gray. C. white. D. black. - Answer D. black. The suffix " - pathy" means: Select one: A. disease. B. s pecialist. C. study of. D. enlargement. - Answer A. disease. The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. a surgical opening made in the heart. C. the removal of fluid from around the heart. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: Select one: A. midclavicular. B. midaxillary. C. lateral. D. medial. - Answer D. medial. Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-ic" and "-ology" B. "-al" and "-ic" C. "-al" and "-ology" D. "-ology" and "-oma" - Answer B. "-al" and "-ic" Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? Select one: A. "dipl-" and "bi-" B. "primi-" and "bi-" C. "bi-" and "null-" D. "primi-" and "dipl-" - Answer A. "dipl-" and "bi-" You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. abdominal aortic aneurysm. B. against ambulance advice. C. acute abdominal assessment. D. acute abdominal aneurysm - Answer A. abdominal aortic aneurysm. You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. B. the problem is with the patient's liver. C. the organ involved is enlarged. D. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. - Answer B. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE the problem is with the patient's liver. Which of the following components of a medical term conveys its essential meaning? Prefix Suffix Word root Combining vowels - Answer Word root Prefixes can indicate: color. conditions. body parts. procedures. - Answer color. The plural form of the word bronchus is: Movement of the arm toward midline is referred to as: flexion. extension. bronchae. bronches. bronchices. bronchi. - Answer bronchi. The statement "the lungs are superior to the bladder" indicates that the lungs are closer to the: feet. surface of the skin. head. trunk. - Answer head. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE B. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. D. look for approval from their peers and society. - Answer C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. Older adults frequently ___________. Select one: A. are able to increase their muscle mass B. are unable to overcome medical problems C. experience a decrease in body fat as they age D. take multiple medications - Answer D. take multiple medications Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. B. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. C. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. D. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. - Answer C. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called ________. Select one: A. cranial valleys B. sutures C. fontanelles D. ventricles - Answer C. fontanelles The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically: Select one: A. 80 beats/min. B. 60 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 70 beats/min. - Answer D. 70 beats/min. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 18 and 22 years. B. 21 and 30 years. C. 25 and 35 years. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE D. 19 and 25 years. - Answer D. 19 and 25 years. The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________. Select one: A. too fast B. normal C. too shallow D. too slow - Answer B. normal The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. a decrease in neurons. C. meningeal deterioration. D. blood vessel dilation. - Answer A. shrinkage of the brain. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? Select one: A. 40-60 breaths/min B. 25-50 breaths/min C. 12-20 breaths/min D. 15-30 breaths/min - Answer C. 12-20 breaths/min When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. C. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing. - Answer A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. Which of the following describes the Moro reflex? Select one: A. When something touches a neonate's cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch. B. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE C. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. D. An infant's heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body. - Answer C. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled. Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. The systolic blood pressure decreases. B. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. C. Secondary sexual development begins. D. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. - Answer C. Secondary sexual development begins. Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? Select one: A. Increased weight B. Medical conditions C. Medications D. Overall health - Answer A. Increased weight Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns? Select one: A. The majority of middle adults still have small children who live at home with them. B. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. C. They are typically receiving social security and must budget with a fixed income. D. Most people in the middle adult age group have chronic illnesses and cannot work. - Answer B. They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE An EMT may inquire his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. hands are held close to the legs. B. back is bent forward at the hips. C. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. D. force is exerted straight down the spine. - Answer back is bent forward at the hips. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. - Answer stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. B. a collapsible undercarriage. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. - Answer increased stability from a wider wheelbase. It is essential that you ______ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE The MOST serious consequences of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: A. injury to you or your patient. B. unnecessarily wasting time. C. confusion among team members. D. causing patient anxiety or fear. - Answer injury to you or your patient. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: A. position your hands about 6² apart. B. rotate your palms down. C. hold the handle with your fingers. D. lift with your palms up. - Answer lift with your palms up. To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear. B. never become involved in the move, only direct the move. C. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. D. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. - Answer use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: A. flex at the waist instead of the hips. A. incinerate B. properly store C. throw out D. decontaminate - Answer decontaminate The ______ is both the mechanical weight - bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. A. thorax B. sacrum C. ischium D. coccyx - Answer sacrum WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE B. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags. C. keep the weight as close to your body as possible. D. use a direct carry whenever possible. - Answer keep the weight as close to your body as possible. To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure: A. both arms above the head B. only the patient's torso C. one arm above the head D. both arms at the patient's sides - Answer one arm above the head. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: A. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. B. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. C. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. D. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. - Answer direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should: A. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. B. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher. C. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher. D. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs. - Answer place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair. When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ______ in front of your torso. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE bend at the hips, knees, back, and arms. bend at the waist and keep your back straight. place your hands palms up on the litter handle. place your hands palms down on the litter's side bars. - Answer place your hands palms up on the litter handle. It is impractical to apply a vest-type extrication device on a critically injured patient to remove him or her from a wrecked vehicle because it: takes too long to correctly apply. does not fully immobilize the spine. cannot be used on patients who are in their car. does not provide adequate stabilization. - Answer takes too long to correctly apply. Proper guidelines for correct reaching include all of the following, EXCEPT: avoiding twisting your back. avoiding hyperextension of your back. keeping the back in a locked-in position. reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body. - Answer reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body. An injured hang glider is trapped at the top of a large mountain and must be evacuated to the ground. The terrain is very rough and uneven. Which of the following devices would be the safest and most appropriate to use? Stair chair Stokes basket Scoop stretcher Long backboard - Answer Stokes basket When two EMTs are lifting a patient on a long backboard, they should: lift the patient from the sides of the board. make every attempt to lift with their backs. position the strongest EMT at the foot of the board. position the strongest EMT at the head of the board. - Answer position the strongest EMT at the head of the board. Which of the following techniques is considered to be an emergency move? Extremity lift WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Supine transfer Firefighter's drag Direct ground lift - Answer Firefighter's drag To extract a patient from the basem*nt of a building, you must transport the patient up a flight of stairs. In doing this, you must ensure that: the elevated head of the backboard goes first. the backboard with the elevated foot end goes first. the backboard is slightly tilted to the left to distribute weight. the patient's feet are higher than his or her head, whichever end is carried first. - Answer the elevated head of the backboard goes first. If an injured patient needs to be moved but is not in immediate danger from fire or building collapse, you should first: order the equipment you need for extrication. check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. remove the patient with the rapid extrication technique. determine the number of people you will need to move the patient. - Answer check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. The rapid extrication technique is a: nonurgent technique to remove a patient from a vehicle. technique used to transfer a patient from a bed to a stretcher. technique used to lift a patient with no suspected spinal injury onto a stretcher. technique used to quickly remove a patient from a vehicle and onto a backboard. - Answer technique used to quickly remove a patient from a vehicle and onto a backboard. Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. face shields. B. hazardous materials gear. C. safety goggles. D. turnout gear. - Answer B. hazardous materials gear. Ambulances today are designed according to strict government regulations based on _____ standards. Select one: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. local B. state C. national D. individual - Answer C. national When driving with lights and siren, you are _____ that drivers yield the right-of-way. Select one: A. requesting B. demanding C. offering D. None of these answers are correct - Answer A. requesting In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. B. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. C. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. D. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. - Answer B. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. - Answer B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. inside the jump kit. B. near the side or rear door. C. in the driver's compartment. D. on the ambulance stretcher. - Answer C. in the driver's compartment. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Select one: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. - Answer B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. The type _____ ambulance is a standard van with a forward-control integral cab body. Select one: A. I B. II C. III D. IV - Answer B. II A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. C. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. D. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. - Answer C. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings. - Answer C. intersections. During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. - Answer C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. cleaning. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. high-level disinfection. - Answer A. cleaning. A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I B. II C. III D. IV - Answer A. I You respond to a multiple-vehicle collision. You and your partner are reviewing dispatch information en route to the scene. You will be at a major intersection of two state highways. As you approach the scene, you review the guidelines for sizing up the scene. The guidelines include: Select one: A. looking for safety hazards. B. evaluating the need for additional units or other assistance. C. evaluating the need to stabilize the spine. D. All of these answers are correct. - Answer D. All of these answers are correct. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. - Answer B. observe the scene for safety hazards. While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. - Answer D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. You are requested out to County Road 93 for a vehicle collision at a rural area known for serious crashes. After driving with lights and sirens for nearly 20 minutes to reach the scene, you arrive at the intersection at the east end of the county. As you pull up, you see two pickup trucks crushed into a mass of twisted, smoking metal. A sheriff's deputy is shouting and waving you over to the passenger side door of one of the demolished trucks. You quickly look down all four roads leading to the scene and note that they are deserted as far as you can see. How would you ensure the proper control of traffic around this scene? Select one: A. Put out flares in a pattern that leads other vehicles safely around the involved vehicles. B. Because the roads were deserted when you arrived, it is not a priority. C. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic. D. Pull completely off the roadway and leave your red emergency lights flashing. - Answer C. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic. - Answer All of the following are examples of standard patient transfer equipment, EXCEPT: Stokes baskets. long backboards. wheeled stair chairs. wheeled ambulance stretchers. - Answer Stokes baskets. The primary purpose of a "jump kit" is to: ensure that you have immediate access to the AED. have available all of the equipment that you will use in the entire call. have easy access to manage patients with severe uncontrolled bleeding. have available all of the equipment that will be used in the first 5 minutes. - Answer have available all of the equipment that will be used in the first 5 minutes. You have been dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. What is the MOST important information that you should obtain from the dispatcher initially? The callback number of the caller WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE C. termination phase D. support phase - Answer C. termination phase The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. complex access B. simple access C. vehicle stabilization D. incident management - Answer A. complex access You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. search the vehicle for occupants B. disconnect the car battery C. apply retardant to the leaking fuel D. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle - Answer D. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control. - Answer C. immediately request additional resources. _____ is responsible for properly securing and stabilizing the vehicle and providing a safe entrance and access to the patient. Select one: A. Law enforcement B. The rescue team C. The EMS service D. The hazardous materials unit - Answer B. The rescue team When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Select one: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. - Answer C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone B. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only C. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient - Answer A. remain outside the danger (hot) zone. Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient B. begin searching for the patient C. split up and request a search grid D. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) - Answer A. prepare the equipment to carry the patient Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb - Answer B. 100 lb If there are downed power lines near a vehicle involved in a crash, you should: Select one: A. attempt to move the power lines yourself. B. touch the power lines with an object to see if there is active electricity. C. have the patient slowly exit the vehicle. D. have the patient remain in the vehicle. - Answer D. have the patient remain in the vehicle. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: Select one: A. logistics operations. B. EMS operations. C. support operations. D. law enforcement. - Answer C. support operations. If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. - Answer B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. - Answer B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. locate the safety officer B. stay with the incident commander C. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue D. remain with the ambulance - Answer D. remain with the ambulance. Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Helmets Blood- and fluid-impermeable gloves Goggles - Answer Blood- and fluid-impermeable gloves What is the first phase of extrication? Arrival Preparation Scene size-up Gaining access - Answer Preparation As you approach an unconscious patient who is still in her wrecked vehicle, you note that there is a power line entangled in the wreckage of the vehicle. You should: retreat until the power line has been removed or the power is shut off. carefully gain access to the patient without touching any metal objects. don a pair of rubber gloves and carefully disentangle and remove the power line. call for a tow truck to lift the vehicle off of the power line and then access the patient. - Answer retreat until the power line has been removed or the power is shut off. A two-door passenger car struck a tree while driving approximately 50 mph. The doors are badly damaged and jammed, and the driver appears to be unconscious inside the vehicle. Entering the vehicle by breaking the back window is an example of: simple access. complex access. technical rescue. disentanglement. - Answer complex access. A 30-year-old semiconscious man is pinned by the steering wheel of his badly wrecked vehicle. Once access has been gained to the patient, the EMT should: have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove him from the vehicle. immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and then allow extrication to begin. perform a primary assessment and provide any needed emergency care prior to extrication. ensure that the patient is not bleeding significantly before allowing the extrication process to commence. - Answer perform a primary assessment and provide any needed emergency care prior to extrication. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE While the EMT is in a vehicle assessing the patient, the rescue team should be: assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate. awaiting further instructions from the EMT regarding how to proceed with the extrication. actively extricating the patient using whichever rescue method is deemed necessary by the rescue leader. preparing for a simple extrication process, as the EMT has obviously gained access to the patient. - Answer assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate. Proper removal of a critically injured patient from an automobile involves: moving the patient in one fast, continuous step. utilizing no more than two personnel to avoid crowding. moving the patient in smooth, slow, controlled steps. removing the patient by grasping the immobilization device. - Answer moving the patient in smooth, slow, controlled steps. A man has been sucked inside the bin of a grain silo and is trapped. Which of the following rescue teams is the MOST appropriate to request? Trench rescue High-angle rescue Local fire department Confined space rescue - Answer Confined space rescue You respond to a wooded area to help search for a child who has been missing for approximately 24 hours. Which of the following equipment should you leave in the ambulance? Radio Flashlight Jump kit Backboard - Answer Backboard You are dispatched to the scene of a trench collapse. Upon arriving at the scene, your ambulance should be parked at least _____ feet from the incident. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE 250 500 750 1000 - Answer 500 Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the incident command system process. - Answer A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. C. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. - Answer B. must not begin treatment until all patients hve been triaged. While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. - Answer B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. In the incident command system, organizational divisions may include sections, branches, divisions, and: Select one: A. groups. B. teams. C. platoons. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. focus on the patients who are unconscious. B. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C. move all walking patients to a designated area. D. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. - Answer C. move all walking patients to a designated area. Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. C. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. - Answer D. give a general idea of the hazard inside the particular container. Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients C. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity - Answer A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances. You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities - Answer B. A 49-year old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: A. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. B. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. C. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. D. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering. - Answer C. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 5; 50 lb B. 6; 70 lb C. 7; 90 lb D. 8; 100 lb - Answer D. 8; 100 lb Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. B. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. C. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. D. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. - Answer A. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation. The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. - Answer A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Triage WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE B. Transport C. Treatment D. Extrication - Answer D. Extrication Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Sight and sound B. Sound and smell C. Smell and sight D. Sight and touch - Answer A. Sight and sound Which of the following definitions of a mass-casualty incident is correct? Select one: A. Any call that involves three or more patients B. Any situation that meets the demand of equipment or personnel C. Any incident that does not require mutual aid response D. Any call that involves at least one motor vehicle - Answer A. Any call that involves three or more patients - Answer What is the purpose of the incident command system (ICS)? Ensuring responder and public safety Achieving incident management goals Ensuring the efficient use of resources All of the above. - Answer All of the above. Upon arriving at a scene in which the incident command system has been activated, you should expect to: be passed from sector to sector, as needed, in between assignments. report directly to the incident commander in between assignments. be assigned a specific responsibility for the duration of the incident. be given general directions and allowed to function independently. - Answer be passed from sector to sector, as needed, in between assignments. When EMS responds to a disaster, as part of their response within the ICS, EMS would start with a scene size-up. What is the next step for the first-responding units? WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. position him supine and elevate his legs. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. D. request a paramedic to administer atropine. - Answer C. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. Correct All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: A. phosgene oxime. B. sarin. C. lewisite. D. sulfur mustard - Answer B. sarin. Correct An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. doomsday cult. D. single-issue group. - Answer D. single-issue group. Correct As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: A. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. B. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. C. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. D. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. - Answer B. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. Correct At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE C. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. - Answer A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. Correct Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: A. weather conditions may change quickly. B. bystanders may destroy the evidence. C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. D. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. - Answer C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. Correct n determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: A. victim's statements. B. weather conditions. C. the location type. D. the type of call. - Answer B. weather conditions. Correct Most cases of anthrax begin with: A. respiratory distress. B. signs of shock. C. pulmonary edema. D. flulike symptoms. - Answer D. flulike symptoms. Correct Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: A. activated charcoal and glucose. B. amyl nitrate and naloxone. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE D. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. - Answer C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. Correct Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. C. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. - Answer B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. Correct The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: A. state-sponsored terrorism. B. domestic terrorism. C. an ecoterrorist attack. D. apocalyptic violence. - Answer B. domestic terrorism. Correct The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. C. skin that is cherry red and hot. D. a normal pulse oximetry reading. - Answer D. a normal pulse oximetry reading. Correct The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: A. 72 hours. B. 1 week. C. 6 months. D. 21 days. - Answer D. 21 days. Correct The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: A. incubation. B. dissemination. C. weaponization. D. aerosolization - Answer B. dissemination. Correct WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE as close to the bombing site as possible. upwind and uphill from the bombing site. downwind and uphill from the bombing site. upwind and downhill from the bombing site. - Answer upwind and uphill from the bombing site. A terrorist would MOST likely use a secondary explosive device: to ensure that a structure is completely destroyed. in case the primary explosive device fails to detonate. as a means of dispersing a biologic or chemical agent. to injure rescuers and gain maximum public attention. - Answer to injure rescuers and gain maximum public attention. When assessing a patient who was exposed to a vesicant agent, you should expect to encounter: skin blistering. loss of hearing. vomiting blood. profound bradycardia. - Answer skin blistering. What does sulfur mustard do to the cells within the body? It makes the cells retain water until they explode. It causes the cells to release all their energy, which then causes cellular death. It makes the cells mutate, which damages and changes the cells and causes cellular death. It makes the cells release all their fluids and causes severe dehydration until cellular death occurs. - Answer It makes the cells mutate, which damages and changes the cells and causes cellular death. Pinpoint pupils, vomiting, bradycardia, and excessive salivation are signs of exposure to: lewisite. soman. cyanide. phosgene. - Answer soman. You respond to a plastic factory, where numerous people present with shortness of breath, flushed skin, and altered mental status. One of the patients tells you he smelled almonds before he started feeling sick. These people were MOST likely exposed to: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE sarin. bleach. cyanide. chlorine. - Answer cyanide. Factors that have the GREATEST impact on the severity of radiation exposure include: age and overall health. gender and wind speed. the method of dispersal. time, distance, and shielding. - Answer time, distance, and shielding. A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A. oxygen. B. nitrogen. C. lactic acid. D. heat. - Answer D. heat. Correct A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: A. ventricular relaxation. B. ventricular filling. C. atrial contraction. D. ventricular contraction. - Answer D. ventricular contraction. Correct A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? A. Neurogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Hypovolemic D. Obstructive - Answer D. Obstructive Correct Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. pancreas. B. gallbladder. C. stomach. D. kidneys - Answer B. gallbladder. Correct WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. B. inspiratory reserve is increased. C. minute volume is decreased. D. overall tidal volume is increased. - Answer C. minute volume is decreased. Correct Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: A. the cells function with adequate oxygen. B. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high. C. circulating blood glucose levels fall. D. the cells function without oxygen. - Answer A. the cells function with adequate oxygen. Correct Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: A. medication. B. assessment. C. protocol. D. disease. - Answer D. disease. Correct The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. A. orbit B. sphenoid C. mastoid D. occiput - Answer A. orbit Correct The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A. costovertebral angle B. costal arch WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE Which of the following are found in the retroperitoneal space? Liver Spleen Kidneys Stomach - Answer Kidneys The cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: costal arch. manubrium. angle of Louis. xiphoid process. - Answer xiphoid process. A person with bilateral femur fractures has: fractured one of his or her femurs. fractured both of his or her femurs. one femur fractured in two places. fractured the lateral aspect of the femur. - Answer fractured both of his or her femurs. A. Skeletal system B. Urinary system C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Blood vessels - Answer A. Skeletal system Correct Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. Nervous B. Reproductive C. Endocrine D. Skeletal - Answer C. Endocrine Correct Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Stomach B. Cecum C. Spleen D. Liver - Answer C. Spleen Correct WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE The MOST prominent landmark on the anterior surface of the neck is the: mastoid process. cricoid cartilage. thyroid cartilage. cricothyroid membrane. - Answer thyroid cartilage Insulin is produced in the: liver. pancreas. thyroid gland. adrenal glands. - Answer pancreas. _____ connect muscles to bones. Ligaments Cartilage Tendons Joints - Answer Tendons The normal resting adult heart rate is: 50 to 70 beats/min. 60 to 100 beats/min. 80 to 110 beats/min. 110 to 120 beats/min. - Answer 60 to 100 beats/min. The left atrium of the heart receives ___________ blood from the ___________. oxygenated; lungs deoxygenated; body oxygenated; body deoxygenated; lungs - Answer oxygenated; lungs The largest part of the brain is the: cerebrum. brain stem. cerebellum. foramen magnum. - Answer cerebrum. Which of the following statements about red blood cells is FALSE? WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE They contain iron. They carry oxygen. They help to fight infection. They give color to the blood. - Answer They help to fight infection. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab would to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: -apply direct pressure to the wound. -elevate his legs and keep him warm. -administer 100% supplemental oxygen. -ensure that his airway is patent. - Answer -apply direct pressure to the wound. Page 332, Primary Assessment A palpable pulse is created by: -pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction -electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction -the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries -the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart - Answer pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. Page 329, Primary Assessment An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: -airway, breathing, and circulation. -gathering medical history data. -providing immediate transport. -obtaining baseline vital signs. - Answer -airway, breathing, and circulation. Page 324, Primary Assessment An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? -Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension. -Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain. -Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE -Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel. -Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle. -Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog. -Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status. - Answer -Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status. Page 317, Scene Size-Up Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? -Poisoning. -Drug overdose. -Acute anxiety. -Inadequate perfusion. - Answer -Acute anxiety. Page 324, Primary Assessment Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms? -A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness. -A 61-year-old female who si unconscious with facial cyanosis. -A 55-year-old with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea. -A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears. - Answer -A 61year- old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis. Page 315, Introduction Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct? -The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. -The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOI. -A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability. -A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma. - Answer -The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries. Page 319, Scene Size-Up Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? - During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. -The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. -A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if yo must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE -The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. - Answer -The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. Page 348, Secondary Assessment You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a a nearby table. You should: -document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient. -position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. -direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. -immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. - Answer -position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. Page 318, Scene Size-Up You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: -is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. -has an increased heart rate and retractions. -is restless and is working hard to breathe. -has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. - Answer -has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. Page 329, Primary Assessment During the scene size-up, you should routinely determine all of the following, EXCEPT: the mechanism of injury or nature of illness. the ratio of pediatric patients to adult patients. whether or not additional resources are needed. if there are any hazards that will jeopardize safety. - Answer the ratio of pediatric patients to adult patients. You arrive at the scene of an "injured person." As you exit the ambulance, you see a man lying on the front porch of his house. He appears to have been shot in the head and is lying in a pool of blood. You should: WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE immediately assess the patient. proceed to the patient with caution. quickly assess the scene for a gun. retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement to arrive. - Answer retreat to a safe place and wait for law enforcement to arrive. Findings such as inadequate breathing or an altered level of consciousness should be identified in the: primary assessment. focused assessment. secondary assessment. reassessment. - Answer primary assessment. Which of the following would you NOT detect while determining your initial general impression of a patient? Cyanosis Gurgling respirations Severe bleeding Rapid heart rate - Answer Rapid heart rate Your primary assessment of an elderly woman who fell reveals an altered level of consciousness and a large hematoma to her forehead. After protecting her spine and administering oxygen, you should: reassess your interventions. perform a rapid exam. transport the patient immediately. perform a focused assessment of her head. - Answer perform a rapid exam. A semiconscious patient pushes your hand away when you pinch his earlobe. You should describe his level of consciousness as: alert. unresponsive. responsive to painful stimuli. responsive to verbal stimuli. - Answer responsive to painful stimuli. Assessment of an unconscious patient's breathing begins by: inserting an oral airway. manually positioning the head. assessing respiratory rate and depth. clearing the mouth with suction as needed. - Answer manually positioning the head. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE place him in the recovery position. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. suction his airway for up to 15 seconds. assist his breathing with a bag-valve mask. - Answer assist his breathing with a bagvalve mask. When ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-valve mask, you should squeeze the bag: until it is empty. over a period of 2 seconds. at a rate of 20 breaths/min. until visible chest rise is noted. - Answer until visible chest rise is noted. You and your partner are ventilating an apneic adult when you notice that his stomach is becoming distended. You should: suction his airway for up to 15 seconds. reposition his head. increase the rate and volume of your ventilations. decrease your ventilation rate but use more volume. - Answer reposition his head. A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it. B. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. - Answer C A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? A. Severe pulmonary edema B. His extremities are cold C. Increased body temperature D. Carbon monoxide poisoning - Answer D A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. mouth-to-mask device. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. bag-valve mask. D. nasal cannula. - Answer B WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates: A. fluid in the alveoli. B. a lower airway obstruction. C. secretions in the airway. D. swelling of the upper airway. - Answer B How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. B. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. C. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation. D. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. - Answer B In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? A. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed B. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma - Answer A Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. agonal respirations. B. ataxic respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. - Answer D The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex. D. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. - Answer C The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. diffusion. B. respiration. C. oxygenation. D. ventilation. - Answer D What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE A. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. B. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. C. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolarcapillary membrane. - Answer A When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 400 mm Hg. D. 300 mm Hg. - Answer D Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bagvalve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag B. Consistently increasing heart rate C. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag D. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult - Answer C Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations B. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin D. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin - Answer C Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations B. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations D. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing - Answer D WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: -a beta-antagonist -an antihistamine -albuterol -epinephrine - Answer -epinephrine Page 598, Causes of Dyspnea A 59-year-old male with history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? -Rupture of the diaphragm -Exacerbatuon of his COPD -Spontaneous pneumotorax -Acute pulmonary embolism - Answer -Spontaneous pneumothorax Page 599, Causes of Dyspnea A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: -fluid accumulation outside the lung -diffuse collapsing of the alveoli -a bacterial infection of the lung tissue -a unilaterally collapsed lung - Answer -fluid accumulation outside the lung Page 599, Causes of Dyspnea Asthma is caused by a response of the: -respiratory system -endocrine system -immune system -cardiovascular system - Answer -immune system Page 595, Causes of Dyspnea Crackles (rales) are caused by ______. -severe bronchoconstriction -air passing through fluid WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE -narrowing of the upper airways mucus in the larger airways - Answer -air passing through fluid Page 604, Patient Assessment His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: -bronchiolitis -pertussis -croup -epiglottis - Answer -bronchiolitis Page 591-592, Causes of Dyspnea In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: -the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. -the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. -there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. -oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolarcapillary membrane. - Answer -oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Page 586, Physiology of Respiration In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? -Bronchi -Alveoli -Trachea -Capillaries - Answer -Alveoli Page 585, Anatomy of the Respiratory System Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? -Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg. -Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia. WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL EXAM CHAPTER 1-29 QUESTIONS AND 100%CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE -Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%. - Answer -Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg. Page 615, Treatment of Specific Conditions When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: -abnormal breath sounds -normal breath sounds -diminished breath sounds -an absence of breath sounds - Answer -abnormal breath sounds Page 604, Patient Assessment Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? -Severe anxiety -Pulmonary edema -Pleural effusion -Narcotic overdose - Answer -Severe anxiety Page 589-590, Causes of Dyspnea Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? -Severe acute respiratory syndrome -Cystic fibrosis -Celiac sprue -Multiple sclerosis - Answer -Cystic fibrosis Page 618, Treatment of Specific Conditions Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? -20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor -24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin -22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis -30 breaths.min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - Answer -24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Page 587, Pathophysiology Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?